Quote: "Language standards are the property of the ruling class: thus the diction, usage, and pronunciation of the power centers of capital cities tend to be the standards for a national language. Linguistic discrimination is a staple of human interaction—it was once quite deadly to mispronounce shibboleth" (Bizzell and Herzberg 802).
Question: How are elocution and linguistic discrimination linked in politics today? Is the brash language of populist rhetoric a direct response to the perceived language standards of the ruling class? Or are complaints against the "shrill" or "robotic" speech of (usually female) politicians also evidence of linguistic discrimination?
I believe both are correct. I think the rise of populist rhetoric like that of Donald Trump and Bernie Sanders is a response to the perceived elitism of the ruling class as well as liberals who have a college education. There definitely are valid arguments against the promotion of "proper" language, but the comments about the "shrill" or "robotic" speech of certain politicians seem more personal and do little to make language more inclusive; instead, I believe they further linguistic discrimination against women.
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