Quote: “I began writing about Aspasia, for instance, only when I began resisting the Paternal Narrative that assured me she was either apocryphal or a glorified prostitute, that she could not be legitimized because her words appeared only in "secondary" sources, and that she could not and did not represent an entire community of rhetorical women in classical Greece.”
Question: is is possible that rhetoric that isn’t produced from a primary source, is inaccurate or invaluable?
I think that rhetoric that was not produced from a primary source can be inaccurate or invaluable because there is no true source to back up the rhetoric being portrayed.
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